Why is magnetizing inductance represented in parallel to the actual inductance? In a flyback transformer, does the magnetizing inductance in series with the leakage inductance together represent the real primary side? Why is reflected the voltage of the secondary side to the primary one?
It is just a way to represent an unload transformer.
The more loaded is the secondary, the lower the reflected load on the primary winding gets. Therefore, the leakage inductance become the dominant impedance. When the secondary gets unloaded, the reflected impedance increases and the primary inductance becomes the dominant.
Do you get it?